Reiewed an abstract and ran across a fact pattern that has caused | ||
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The vendor's interest being personal
property, it necessarily follows that a judgment obtained against the vendor
after the date of such contract does not become a lien upon the land. (citation
omitted) Johnson v. Smith, 210 Iowa 591, ___, 231 N.W. 470, 473 (Iowa 1930).
Inasmuch as the vendors had no interest to which a judgment lien could attach, the conveyance to W in the deed from vendors conveyed no such interest. The only interest in the land that W ever had to which a judgment lien could attach was the interest she received in the contract. She conveyed/assigned that interest away when she gave the QCD, so the later judgment against her is not a lien on the real estate.
N.B. If the deed had been given in escrow at the time the contract was made, it would "relate back" to the date of the contract, and there would be no room for debate that W has no lienable interest. See Marshall's Iowa Title Opinions and Standards 20.1(C), (E) (G. Madsen 2d. ed. 1978)
Looking at it from the opposite perspective, imagine that you are counsel for the holder of the judgment lien and are foreclosing on the judgment lien. What do you tell the judge when he/she asks you, "Exactly what is W's interest in this estate upon which you may foreclose?"
I do not think the scenario laid out by Todd affects the marketability of H's title.
-----Original Message-----
From: realestate-owner@iabar.org mailto:realestate-owner@iabar.org
On Behalf Of Heininger,Richard
Sent: Thursday, September 21, 2006 11:53 AM
To: realestate@iabar.org
Subject: RE:
(NOTE: selecting Reply in your email program defaults to the entire list)
I think the wife acquired an interest in the property by the deed from
the sellers. The decree of dissolution does not transfer that interest
therefore the wife's judgment lien attaches to the property. The
earlier quit claim deed does not transfer after acquired property to the
husband.
-----Original Message-----
From: realestate-owner@iabar.org mailto:realestate-owner@iabar.org On
Behalf Of Todd G. Nielsen
Sent: Wednesday, September 20, 2006 5:25 PM
To: realestate@iabar.org
Subject:
Reiewed an abstract and ran across a fact pattern that has caused some
concern. Would like some help or suggestions on how or if I can Pass
title.
1. Husband and Wife buy parcel A on contract in 1986.
2. Two months after that contract is signed, wife quit claims her
interest in the property to Husband.
3. 2 years later contract sellers give a deed to both H & W in
satisfaction of their contract.
4. Husband and wife then get divorced and the decree does not
specifically deal with Parcel A. The decree just has a general
Statement that the parties are awarded all property in their
name...........
5. Husband now deeds Parcel A to his stepdaughter so she can put a
home on Parcel A.
6. The kicker is that Wife now has a judgement against her for $5000.00
that was filed August 5.
Does wife still have an interest that this judgement could attach to
and would a nunc pro tunc decree take care of her interest if it vested
title in husband. Both parties agree that it was meant to be the
property of the husband. They thought the quit claim deed from wife to
husband took care of her interest. I assume they did not inform their
divorce attorneys about Parcel A???
What are my options-----HELP
Thanks
Todd Nielsen
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